Dear Dr Towfigh and members,
I had a CT Scan with Valsalva and the report came back with no indication of a hernia.
My doctor looked at this article with me. She agreed to order an MRI (on October 12)
http://www.generalsurgerynews.com/In…37820/ses=ogst
This is a quote from the article
She recommends similar specificity with MRI. “If you order a pelvis alone, they will give you the sacrum. You have to mention anterior pelvis and soft tissue so they focus on the front of the pelvis,” she said. There is no need for contrast; request visualization of all three planes—axial, sagittal and coronal—and again, a dynamic exam is more likely to be accurate.
“Most radiology groups say Valsalva with MRI is impossible. But there is a protocol in radiology language for putting codes into the MRI machine to allow you to do that,” Dr. Towfigh said. The protocol is posted at IHC/Facebook and on HerniaTalk.com.
I wasn’t sure how to find the protocol posted on HerniaTalk.
This is how my order was written:
Order Name: Pelvis MRI WO Contrast
Primary Diagnosis: RLW abdominal Pain R10.31 (789.03)
Note to Lab: Soft Tissue dynamic with valsalva. Suspicion for occult inguinal/femoral hernia.
Pt will mark area of pain . visualization of the axial/saggital /cornal pain . Please provide pt with images.
Is this enough information for the technician to perform the correct MRI protocol? My order didn’t state anterior pelvis. I just want to be sure
I am having the correct procedure performed.
Thank you
.
