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Hernia that didn’t completely reduce
Thanks for providing this site and for helping so many people.
I was diagnosed with the following via ultrasound:
“There is an indirect inguinal hernia present with Valsalva maneuver which did not completely reduce with relaxation. There are no signs of strangulation.”
My concern is over the “did not completely reduce” section. As I have read that any degree of irreducibility predisposes to strangulation.
Does the diagnosis above mean that this hernia is classed as irreducible, or just that it happened to not be fully reducible on that day while taking the ultrasound?
My GP stated that irreducibility is not a concern with a hernia and that that since I am not in pain I do not need to opt for a surgical repair at the present time.
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